I see this come up a lot in discussions about voting in America. Postal votes disproportionately go to Democrats, hence the Democrats want to expand postal voting while Republicans want to restrict it (and insist there is totally a bunch of fraud going on).
I’ve googled with a few search engines and haven’t found a convincing reason. Lots of evidence that the skew is real, but no explanation as to why. Indeed, if one just looks at demographics, one would expect postal voting to benefit Republicans by facilitating votes from people in the countryside who live far away from voting centers.
So what actually gives?
This explanation doesn’t make sense mathematically, though. If the ratio of Democrat to Republican voters is fairly consistent amongst groups, increasing the number of people in any given group that votes will result in that same ratio, just with greater numbers. Saying otherwise is like saying you can add 2% milk to 2% milk to eventually get back to whole milk
The only way voting by mail helps Democrats is if the vote by mail crowd has a heavier democratic skew.
Republicans are fewer in number but far more reliable voters.
Brainwashed people do be like “Yes master” without fail.
Except when you add in the element of access to voting. Voting in-person on a work day isn’t necessarily feasible for the average American. By enforcing in-person voting you disenfranchise the groups that are more heavily democratic (younger, working, lower/middle class).
Really? In Canada it’s law to allow employees time during the work day to go vote. That’s not the case in the US?
It’s state by state whether it’s required and/or paid time off. Additionally, just because something is in the law doesn’t mean every employer is good about it.
That’s nuts. I hope Americans can pull up from this nosedive, even if the time to get back flying is over and all they can get is a controlled crash.